JQPublic
Posts: 1756
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 Posted: 06:35AM Sep 28, 2012 |
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Mods: This is a question about my teaser, but it's also more about maths in general, so I don't want to restrict the replies to the editors'
A teaser of mine got rejected recently because of a flaw in the explanation. According to the editor, if, in a set of six numbers, each number appears twice, there would be three modes (and not no modes). My understand of maths has been that there are no modes when each number appears the same number of times. Is my understanding incorrect? According to Wikipedia's article on uniform distribution (here) and Baidu Baike's article on modes (here), my original understanding seems to be correct, but not according to Wikipedia's article on modes ( here), which treats uniform distribution as an extreme case where the mode is not unique.
Thanks for helping me clear this up 
---This message was edited on 06:35AM Sep 28, 2012---
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